[Mar-2025] CS0-003 Exam Dumps Pass with Updated 2025 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam
Free CS0-003 Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily
CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam, also known as the CS0-003 exam, is designed to test an individual's knowledge and skills in the field of cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for professionals who are seeking to advance their career in the cybersecurity industry and gain recognition for their expertise in the field. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat management, vulnerability management, incident response, and security architecture and toolsets.
NEW QUESTION # 114
An analyst reviews a recent government alert on new zero-day threats and finds the following CVE metrics for the most critical of the vulnerabilities:
CVSS: 3.1/AV:N/AC: L/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:H/E:U/RL:W/RC:R
Which of the following represents the exploit code maturity of this critical vulnerability?
- A. S:C
- B. AC:L
- C. AV:N
- D. E:U
- E. RC:R
Answer: D
Explanation:
The exploit code maturity of a vulnerability is indicated by the E metric in the CVSS temporal score. The value of U means that no exploit code is available or unknown. The other options are not related to the exploit code maturity, but to other aspects of the vulnerability, such as attack vector, scope, availability, and complexity.
NEW QUESTION # 115
A security learn implemented a SCM as part for its security-monitoring program there is a requirement to integrate a number of sources Into the SIEM to provide better context relative to the events being processed. Which of the following BST describes the result the security learn hopes to accomplish by adding these sources?
- A. Continuous integration
- B. Machine learning
- C. Workflow orchestration
- D. Data enrichment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The process of incorporating new updates and information to organizations existing database to improve accuracy.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)
- A. Education plan
- B. Service-level agreement
- C. Risk score
- D. Lessons learned
- E. Playbook
- F. Affected hosts
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official References: https://www.first.org/cvss/
NEW QUESTION # 117
You are a cybersecurity analyst tasked with interpreting scan data from Company As servers You must verify the requirements are being met for all of the servers and recommend changes if you find they are not The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following
* TLS 1 2 is the only version of TLS running.
* Apache 2.4.18 or greater should be used.
* Only default ports should be used.
INSTRUCTIONS
using the supplied data. record the status of compliance With the company's guidelines for each server.
The question contains two parts: make sure you complete Part 1 and Part 2.
Make recommendations for Issues based ONLY on the hardening guidelines provided.
Part 1:
AppServ1:
AppServ2:
AppServ3:
AppServ4:
Part 2:
Answer:
Explanation:
check the explanation part below for the solution:
Explanation
Part 1:
Part 2:
Based on the compliance report, I recommend the following changes for each server:
AppServ1: No changes are needed for this server.
AppServ2: Disable or upgrade TLS 1.0 and TLS 1.1 to TLS 1.2 on this server to ensure secure encryption and communication between clients and the server. Update Apache from version 2.4.17 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs.
AppServ3: Downgrade Apache from version 2.4.19 to version 2.4.18 or lower on this server to ensure compatibility and stability with the company's applications and policies. Change the port number from 8080 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.
AppServ4: Update Apache from version 2.4.16 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. Change the port number from 8443 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.
NEW QUESTION # 118
A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Which of the following commands should the security analyst consider running?
- A. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]
- B. grep [IP address] packets.pcap
B cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address] - C. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
Answer: A
Explanation:
tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or the destination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official Reference:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/
NEW QUESTION # 119
A company's threat team has been reviewing recent security incidents and looking for a common theme. The team discovered the incidents were caused by incorrect configurations on the impacted systems. The issues were reported to support teams, but no action was taken. Which of the following is the next step the company should take to ensure any future issues are remediated?
- A. Require support teams to develop a detective control that ensures they continuously assess systems for configuration errors.
- B. Require support teams to develop a preventive control that ensures new systems are built with the required security configurations.
- C. Require support teams to develop a corrective control that ensures security failures are addressed once they are identified.
- D. Require support teams to develop a managerial control that ensures systems have a documented configuration baseline.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Requiring support teams to develop a corrective control that ensures security failures are addressed once they are identified is the best step to prevent future issues from being remediated. Corrective controls are actions or mechanisms that are implemented after a security incident or failure has occurred to fix or restore the normal state of the system or network. Corrective controls can include patching, updating, repairing, restoring, or reconfiguring systems or components that were affected by the incident or failure .
NEW QUESTION # 120
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output:
Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics?
- A. host02
- B. host03
- C. host01
- D. host04
Answer: B
Explanation:
Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.
NEW QUESTION # 121
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
- B. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
- C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
- D. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
Answer: A
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.
NEW QUESTION # 122
The SOC received a threat intelligence notification indicating that an employee's credentials were found on the dark web. The user's web and log-in activities were reviewed for malicious or anomalous connections, data uploads/downloads, and exploits. A review of the controls confirmed multifactor authentication was enabled. Which of the following should be done first to mitigate impact to the business networks and assets?
- A. Communicate the compromised credentials to the user.
- B. Review and ensure privileges assigned to the user's account reflect least privilege.
- C. Lower the thresholds for SOC alerting of suspected malicious activity.
- D. Perform an ad hoc AV scan on the user's laptop.
- E. Perform a forced password reset.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The first and most urgent step to mitigate the impact of compromised credentials on the dark web is to perform a forced password reset for the affected user. This will prevent the cybercriminals from using the stolen credentials to access the company's network and systems. Multifactor authentication is a good security measure, but it is not foolproof and can be bypassed by sophisticated attackers. Therefore, changing the password as soon as possible is the best practice to reduce the risk of a data breach or other cyber attack123 Reference: 1: How to monitor the dark web for compromised employee credentials 2: How to prevent corporate credentials ending up on the dark web 3: Data Breach Prevention: Identifying Leaked Credentials on the Dark Web
NEW QUESTION # 123
A security analyst has found a moderate-risk item in an organization's point-of-sale application.
The organization is currently in a change freeze window and has decided that the risk is not high enough to correct at this time. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation does this scenario illustrate?
- A. Business process interruption
- B. Service-level agreement
- C. Proprietary system
- D. Degrading functionality
Answer: A
Explanation:
Business process interruption is the inhibitor to remediation that this scenario illustrates. Business process interruption is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident requires the disruption or suspension of a critical or essential business process, such as the point-of-sale application. This can cause operational, financial, or reputational losses for the organization, and may outweigh the benefits of the remediation. Therefore, the organization may decide to postpone or avoid the remediation until a more convenient time, such as a change freeze window, which is a period of time when no changes are allowed to the IT environment. Service- level agreement, degrading functionality, and proprietary system are other possible inhibitors to remediation, but they are not relevant to this scenario. Service-level agreement is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident violates or affects the contractual obligations or expectations of the service provider or the customer. Degrading functionality is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident reduces or impairs the performance or usability of a system or an application. Proprietary system is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident involves a system or an application that is owned or controlled by a third party, and the organization has limited or no access or authority to modify it.
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following types of controls defines placing an ACL on a file folder?
- A. Managerial control
- B. Operational control
- C. Confidentiality control
- D. Technical control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Technical controls enforce confidentiality, integrity, and availability in the digital space. Examples of technical security controls include firewall rules, access control lists, intrusion prevention systems, and encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 125
An analyst is suddenly unable to enrich data from the firewall. However, the other open intelligence feeds continue to work. Which of the following is the most likely reason the firewall feed stopped working?
- A. The firewall certificate expired.
- B. The firewall service account was locked out.
- C. The firewall was using a paid feed.
- D. The firewall failed open.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.
NEW QUESTION # 126
An incident response analyst is taking over an investigation from another analyst. The investigation has been going on for the past few days. Which of the following steps is most important during the transition between the two analysts?
- A. Validate the root cause from the prior analyst.
- B. Review the steps that the previous analyst followed.
- C. Identify and discuss the lessons learned with the prior analyst.
- D. Accept all findings and continue to investigate the next item target.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reviewing the steps that the previous analyst followed is the most important step during the transition, as it ensures continuity and consistency of the investigation. It also helps the new analyst to understand the current status, scope, and findings of the investigation, and to avoid repeating the same actions or missing any important details. The other options are either less important, premature, or potentially biased.
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following is the most appropriate action a security analyst to take to effectively identify the most security risks associated with a locally hosted server?
- A. Contract an external penetration tester to attempt a brute-force attack.
- B. Run the operating system update tool to apply patches that are missing.
- C. Execute a vulnerability scan against the target host.
- D. Download a vendor support agent to validate drivers that are installed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the security weaknesses of a system or network. A vulnerability scan can help a security analyst to effectively identify the most security risks associated with a locally hosted server, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, outdated software, or exposed services. A vulnerability scan can also provide recommendations on how to remediate the identified vulnerabilities and improve the security posture of the server12 Reference: 1: What is a Vulnerability Scan? | Definition and Examples 2: Securing a server: risks, challenges and best practices - Vaadata
NEW QUESTION # 128
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:
Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?
- A. InLoud:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: Yes
Channing: No - B. TSpirit:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: Yes
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - C. ENameless:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - D. PBleach:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: No
Smear: No
Channing: Yes
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 129
During normal security monitoring activities, the following activity was observed:
cd C:\Users\Documents\HR\Employees
takeown/f .*
SUCCESS:
Which of the following best describes the potentially malicious activity observed?
- A. File configuration changes
- B. Registry changes or anomalies
- C. Data exfiltration
- D. Unauthorized privileges
Answer: D
Explanation:
The takeown command is used to take ownership of a file or folder that previously was denied access to the current user or group.
The activity observed indicates that someone has taken ownership of all files and folders under the C:\Users\Documents\HR\Employees directory, which may contain sensitive or confidential information.
This could be a sign of unauthorized privileges, as the user or group may not have the legitimate right or need to access those files or folders.
Taking ownership of files or folders could also enable the user or group to modify or delete them, which could affect the integrity or availability of the data.
NEW QUESTION # 130
After completing a review of network activity. the threat hunting team discovers a device on the network that sends an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. Which of the following is potentially occurring?
- A. Abnormal OS process behavior
- B. Rogue device on the network
- C. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
- D. Data exfiltration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data exfiltration is the theft or unauthorized transfer or movement of data from a device or network. It can occur as part of an automated attack or manually, on-site or through an internet connection, and involve various methods. It can affect personal or corporate data, such as sensitive or confidential information. Data exfiltration can be prevented or detected by using compression, encryption, authentication, authorization, and other controls1 The network activity shows that a device on the network is sending an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. This could indicate that the device is compromised by malware or an insider threat, and that the email is used to exfiltrate data from the network to an external party.
The email could contain attachments, links, or hidden data that contain the stolen information. The timing of the email could be designed to avoid detection by normal network monitoring or security systems.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Which of the following commands should the security analyst consider running?
- A. cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
- B. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]
- C. grep [IP address] packets.pcap
- D. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
Answer: B
Explanation:
tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or the destination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official Reference:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/
NEW QUESTION # 132
An organization wants to consolidate a number of security technologies throughout the organization and standardize a workflow for identifying security issues prioritizing the severity and automating a response Which of the following would best meet the organization's needs'?
- A. SOAR
- B. CI/CD
- C. SIEM
- D. MaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) system is a solution that combines various security technologies and workflows to identify security issues, prioritize their severity, and automate a response. A SOAR system can help an organization consolidate its security tools and processes and standardize its workflow for incident response. The other options are not relevant or comprehensive for this purpose. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 15; https://www.gartner.com/en/information-technology/glossary/security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar
NEW QUESTION # 133
A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigation request Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified?
- A. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.
- B. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data.
- C. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data.
- D. Protect the device with a complex password.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the original data that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with a password, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being altered or deleted. Verified Reference: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page 3291
NEW QUESTION # 134
A security team identified several rogue Wi-Fi access points during the most recent network scan. The network scans occur once per quarter. Which of the following controls would best all ow the organization to identity rogue devices more quickly?
- A. Change the frequency of network scans to once per month.
- B. Implement a continuous monitoring policy.
- C. Implement a portable wireless scanning policy.
- D. Implement a BYOD policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best control to allow the organization to identify rogue devices more quickly is A. Implement a continuous monitoring policy. A continuous monitoring policy is a set of procedures and tools that enable an organization to detect and respond to unauthorized or anomalous activities on its network in real time or near real time. A continuous monitoring policy can help identify rogue access points as soon as they appear on the network, rather than waiting for quarterly or monthly scans. A continuous monitoring policy can also help improve the overall security posture and compliance of the organization by providing timely and accurate information about its network assets, vulnerabilities, threats, and incidents1.
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following is a reason proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response?
- A. To ensure the evidence can be used in a postmortem analysis
- B. To present a lessons-learned analysis for the incident response team
- C. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court
- D. To prevent the possible loss of a data source for further root cause analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 136
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