Exam4Free CDIP Exam Questions | Real CDIP Practice Dumps
Verified CDIP Exam Dumps Q&As - Provide CDIP with Correct Answers
NEW QUESTION # 80
When there is a discrepancy between the clinical documentation integrity practitioner's (CDIP's) working DRG and the coder's final DRG, which of the following is considered a fundamental element that must be in place for a successful resolution?
- A. Executive oversight
- B. Physician and CDIP interaction
- C. Coder and CDIP interaction
- D. Physician advisor/champion involvement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, one of the fundamental elements that must be in place for a successful DRG discrepancy resolution is a collaborative and respectful interaction between the coder and the CDIP1. The coder and the CDIP should communicate effectively and timely to identify and resolve any DRG mismatches, using evidence-based guidelines, coding conventions, and query standards1. The coder and the CDIP should also share their knowledge and expertise with each other, and seek clarification from the provider or the physician advisor/champion when necessary1. The other options are not considered fundamental elements for DRG discrepancy resolution, although they may be helpful or supportive in some situations. References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA
NEW QUESTION # 81
AHIMA suggests which of the following for an organization to consider as physician response rate and agreement rate?
- A. 80%/80%
- B. 80%/40%
- C. 75%/75%
- D. 70%/50%
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
AHIMA suggests that an organization should consider a physician response rate of 80% and an agreement rate of 80% as benchmarks for CDI program performance. These rates indicate the level of physician engagement and documentation accuracy in relation to CDI queries.
References: AHIMA. "Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update)." Journal of AHIMA 90, no. 2 (February 2019): 20-29.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following is a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) financial impact measure?
- A. Hierarchical condition category
- B. Case mix index
- C. Release of information
- D. Severity of illness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Case mix index (CMI) is a measure of the average severity and resource consumption of a group of patients, such as those in a hospital or a diagnosis-related group (DRG). CMI reflects the financial impact of CDI by showing how documentation improvement can affect the DRG assignment and reimbursement. A higher CMI indicates more complex and costly cases, while a lower CMI indicates less complex and costly cases. CDI programs can monitor the changes in CMI over time to evaluate their effectiveness and return on investment. (Understanding CDI Metrics2) References:
CDI Week 2020 Q&A: CDI and key performance indicators1
Understanding CDI Metrics2
NEW QUESTION # 83
An 86-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient complains of feeling tired, weak and excessive sleeping. The patient's daughter comments that patient's mental condition has not been the same. Lab results are unremarkable except for a sodium level of 119, a BUN of 22, and a creatinine of 1.35. The patient receives normal saline IV infusing at 100 cc/hr. The admitting diagnosis is weakness, altered mental status and dehydration. Which of the following queries is presented in an ethical manner thus avoiding potential fraud and/or compliance issues?
- A. Patient's sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr, does patient have hyponatremia?
- B. Patient's sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr, is this clinically significant? If so, please document a corresponding diagnosis related to this lab result.
- C. Patient is feeling tired, weak, sleeping a lot and has altered mental status. Sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr. Is the altered mental status related to the sodium of 119?
- D. Patient is feeling tired, weak, sleeping a lot and has altered mental status. Sodium is 119 and she is on NS IV at 100 cc/hr, please clarify the clinical significance of the lab result.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following falls under the False Claims Act?
- A. Unbundling services
- B. Missing modifiers
- C. Missing charges
- D. Missing diagnosis codes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Unbundling services falls under the False Claims Act because it is a form of coding fraud that involves billing separately for components of a related group of procedures or tests that should be billed as a single code. For example, if a provider performs a comprehensive metabolic panel, which is a blood test that measures several components of the blood, such as glucose, electrolytes, and liver enzymes, and bills for each component individually instead of using the single code for the panel, that is unbundling. Unbundling services can result in overpayment by the government and can violate the False Claims Act, which prohibits submitting false or fraudulent claims for payment to the government, including the Medicare and Medicaid programs. Violators of the False Claims Act can face civil penalties of up to three times the amount of the false claim plus an additional $11,000 per claim 23.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: Coding Fraud | VSG 5 3: False Claims Act | OIG 2
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is MOST likely to trigger a second-level review?
- A. An account coded before the discharge summary is available
- B. A record with multiple major complicating conditions (MCCs)
- C. A diagnosis that impacts a quality-of-care measure
- D. A procedure code that increases reimbursement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, a second-level review is a process that involves a review of coded records by a designated person or team to ensure the accuracy and completeness of coding and documentation1. A second-level review may be triggered by various factors, such as high-risk or high-dollar accounts, coding quality indicators, payer requirements, or internal audit findings1. One of the factors that is most likely to trigger a second-level review is a record with multiple major complicating conditions (MCCs)2. MCCs are diagnoses that significantly affect the severity of illness and resource utilization of a patient, and are assigned a higher relative weight in the DRG system3. A record with multiple MCCs may indicate a complex or unusual case that requires additional validation and verification of the coding and documentation. A record with multiple MCCs may also affect the reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores of the hospital, and therefore may be subject to external scrutiny or audit4. The other options are not as likely to trigger a second-level review, as they are not as indicative of coding or documentation issues or risks. A procedure code that increases reimbursement may not necessarily require a second-level review, unless it is inconsistent with the documentation or the clinical indicators. A diagnosis that impacts a quality-of-care measure may be relevant for CDI purposes, but not necessarily for coding validation.
An account coded before the discharge summary is available may be incomplete or inaccurate, but it may also be corrected or updated before final billing.
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Building a Resilient CDI: Second Level Review
Major Complications or Comorbidities (MCC) & Complications or Comorbidities (CC) | CMS Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
NEW QUESTION # 86
The ultimate purpose of clinical documentation integrity (CDI) expansion and growth is to
- A. show a direct relationship between clinical documentation and quality patient care
- B. promote CDI functions so that physicians view the CDI staff as value-added service
- C. create synergy between clinical education and CDI principles
- D. provide community education to healthcare consumers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The ultimate purpose of clinical documentation integrity (CDI) expansion and growth is to show a direct relationship between clinical documentation and quality patient care. According to the web search results, CDI programs aim to improve the quality and efficiency of clinical documentation by ensuring that it is accurate, complete, and consistent. This in turn leads to better health care data, which is vital for capturing the appropriate indicators used for health care facility and provider profiling, reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores12. CDI programs also focus on patient safety, by identifying and resolving any documentation omissions, discrepancies, or adverse events that may affect the patient's outcome or care3. Therefore, CDI programs demonstrate how clinical documentation can impact the quality of patient care and the performance of health care organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 87
A patient presents to the emergency room with acute shortness of breath. The patient has a history of lung cancer that has been treated previously with radiation and chemotherapy. The patient is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation. A chest x-ray is remarkable for a pleural effusion. A thoracentesis is performed, and the cytology results show malignant cells. Diagnoses on discharge: Acute respiratory failure due to recurrence of small cell carcinoma and malignant pleural effusion. Which coding reference takes precedence for assigning the ICD-10-CM/PCS codes?
- A. Conventions and instructions of the classification for ICD-10-CM/PCS
- B. AMA CPT Assistant
- C. AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS
- D. ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the CDIP Exam Content Outline, one of the tasks of a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) is to apply coding conventions, guidelines, and definitions for ICD-10-CM/PCS. Coding conventions are the general rules for the use of the classification system, such as the use of abbreviations, punctuation, symbols, and sequencing instructions. Coding guidelines are the official rules for selecting and reporting codes based on the documentation in the health record. Coding definitions are the explanations of the terms and concepts used in the classification system. The conventions and instructions of the classification for ICD-10-CM/PCS take precedence over any other coding reference because they are the primary source of coding rules and standards. The other coding references, such as AMA CPT Assistant, AHA Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, and ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, are secondary sources that provide additional guidance, clarification, or interpretation of the coding conventions and instructions.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) ICD-10-CM Features | Diagnosis Coding: Using the ICD-10-CM1
NEW QUESTION # 88
The physician advisor/champion needs to provide ongoing education regarding coding and reimbursement regulations to the
- A. organization senior administration staff
- B. clinical documentation integrity staff
- C. Health Information Management coding staff
- D. organization's medical and surgical staff
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The physician advisor/champion is a key role in the CDI program who serves as a liaison between the CDI staff and the organization's medical and surgical staff. The physician advisor/champion needs to provide ongoing education regarding coding and reimbursement regulations to the organization's medical and surgical staff to promote awareness, understanding, and compliance with CDI initiatives and goals.
References: AHIMA. "CDIP Exam Preparation." AHIMA Press, Chicago, IL, 2017: 97-98.
NEW QUESTION # 89
An increase in claim denials has prompted a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager to engage the CDI physician advisor/champion in an effort to avoid future denials. How does this strategy impact the goal?
- A. Physicians will learn documentation integrity practices from peers.
- B. The CDI manager will exclusively provide education.
- C. Physicians can manage the documentation integrity process.
- D. Clinicians will not require documentation integrity education.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Engaging the CDI physician advisor/champion in an effort to avoid future denials is a strategy that impacts the goal of improving documentation integrity by leveraging the influence and expertise of a physician leader who can educate, mentor, and advocate for other physicians on documentation best practices. The CDI physician advisor/champion can act as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, provide feedback and guidance on complex or challenging cases, resolve conflicts or discrepancies in documentation, and promote a culture of collaboration and quality improvement. Physicians are more likely to learn and adopt documentation integrity practices from their peers who understand their clinical perspective and challenges, rather than from non-physician CDI staff or managers.
A: The CDI manager will exclusively provide education. This is incorrect because engaging the CDI physician advisor/champion implies that the CDI manager will not be the sole source of education, but rather will partner with the physician leader to deliver effective and tailored education to the medical staff.
C: Physicians can manage the documentation integrity process. This is incorrect because engaging the CDI physician advisor/champion does not mean that physicians will take over the responsibility of managing the documentation integrity process, which involves multiple stakeholders, such as CDI specialists, coders, quality analysts, and auditors. Rather, physicians will be more involved and supportive of the documentation integrity process as a result of the education and mentorship provided by the CDI physician advisor/champion.
D: Clinicians will not require documentation integrity education. This is incorrect because engaging the CDI physician advisor/champion does not eliminate the need for documentation integrity education for clinicians, but rather enhances and facilitates it by using a peer-to-peer approach that can increase awareness, engagement, and compliance among physicians.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Q&A: Defining roles for physician advisor/champion | ACDIS Q&A: The Role of the Physician Advisor in CDI | ACDIS The Role of a Physician Advisor - UASI Solutions PA/NP in Physician Champion / Advisor Role - ACDIS Forums
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following is an appropriate first step to address physicians with low query response rates?
- A. An educational session between the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) and physician
- B. A meeting between the physician advisor/champion and the noncompliant physician
- C. The medical staff review the physician's noncompliance to consider sanctions
- D. The physician receives a suspension until query responses are improved
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An appropriate first step to address physicians with low query response rates is an educational session between the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) and physician because it provides an opportunity to explain the purpose and benefits of the query process, to identify and address any barriers or challenges to responding, and to offer feedback and guidance on how to improve query response rates. An educational session can also help to build rapport and trust between the CDIP and the physician, and to demonstrate respect and professionalism. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
Understanding CDI Metrics3
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following is a clinical documentation element supporting a transbronchial biopsy?
- A. Pathology report documenting bronchial tissue
- B. Hemoptysis
- C. Length of procedure
- D. Pathology report documenting alveolar tissue
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A transbronchial biopsy is a procedure that involves obtaining tissue samples from the alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs through a bronchoscope. A pathology report documenting alveolar tissue is a clinical documentation element that supports a transbronchial biopsy, as it confirms the source and nature of the tissue sample.
References: AHIMA. "CDIP Exam Preparation." AHIMA Press, Chicago, IL, 2017: 55-56.
NEW QUESTION # 92
A hospital administrator has hired a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) firm to improve its revenue objectives. The physicians object to this action. How should the firm collaborate with physicians to overcome their objections?
- A. Hire a consultant to communicate the benefits to the physicians
- B. Communicate the benefits of the CDI firm about the project
- C. Create a vision statement that outlines the project objectives
- D. Identify an influential physician advisor/champion to promote support
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A physician advisor/champion is a physician leader who supports and advocates for the CDI program and its objectives. A physician advisor/champion can help overcome the objections of other physicians by providing education, feedback, guidance, and mentorship on documentation best practices and their impact on revenue, quality, and patient care. A physician advisor/champion can also act as a liaison between the CDI firm and the medical staff, resolve conflicts or discrepancies in documentation, and foster a culture of collaboration and improvement. Physicians are more likely to trust and engage with their peers who understand their clinical perspective and challenges, rather than an external CDI firm that may be perceived as intrusive or disruptive.
A:Create a vision statement that outlines the project objectives. This is not sufficient to collaborate with physicians and overcome their objections. A vision statement is a general statement that describes the desired outcome of the project, but it does not address the specific concerns or questions that physicians may have about the CDI firm's role, methods, or benefits.
B:Communicate the benefits of the CDI firm about the project. This is not enough to collaborate with physicians and overcome their objections. Communicating the benefits of the CDI firm may be informative, but it may not be persuasive or credible if it comes from the CDI firm itself, without any endorsement or support from a physician leader within the organization.
C: Hire a consultant to communicate the benefits to the physicians. This is not a good way to collaborate with physicians and overcome their objections. Hiring a consultant may add another layer of complexity and cost to the project, and it may not improve the trust or relationship between the CDI firm and the physicians. A consultant may also lack the clinical expertise or authority to influence the physicians' behavior or attitude.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Q&A: Defining roles for physician advisor/champion | ACDIS Q&A: The Role of the Physician Advisor in CDI | ACDIS The Role of a Physician Advisor - UASI Solutions PA/NP in Physician Champion / Advisor Role - ACDIS Forums
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following should be examined when developing documentation integrity projects?
- A. Coding productivity statistics
- B. CC and MCC capture rates
- C. Query rates from coding staff
- D. Physician satisfaction surveys
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The factor that should be examined when developing documentation integrity projects is CC and MCC capture rates. CC stands for complication or comorbidity, and MCC stands for major complication or comorbidity.
These are secondary diagnoses that affect the severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) of the patient, as well as the reimbursement and quality measures of the hospital. CC and MCC capture rates measure how well the clinical documentation reflects the presence and impact of these conditions on the patient's care. Examining CC and MCC capture rates can help to identify documentation improvement opportunities, goals, strategies, and outcomes4 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 4:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 94
A patient was admitted with complaints of confusion, weakness, and slurred speech. A CT of the head and MRI were performed and resulted in normal findings. Daily aspirin was administered and a speech therapy evaluation was conducted. The final diagnosis on discharge was transient ischemic attack, and cerebrovascular disease was ruled out. What is the correct diagnostic related group assignment?
- A. 948 Signs and Symptoms without MCC
- B. 093 Other Disorders of Nervous System without CC/MCC
- C. 069 Transient Ischemia
- D. 066 Intracranial Hemorrhage or Cerebral Infarction without CC/MCC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a neurological event with the signs and symptoms of a stroke, but which go away within a short period of time. TIA is assigned to DRG 069, which is a medical DRG. Cerebrovascular disease was ruled out, so it cannot be coded as a secondary diagnosis. The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the principal diagnosis of TIA.
NEW QUESTION # 95
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) metrics recently showed a drastic drop in the physician query rate.
What might this indicate to the CDI manager?
- A. The program is successful because documentation has improved
- B. CDI staff need education on identifying query opportunities
- C. The decrease in hospital census has caused a lack of query opportunities
- D. The loss of a large volume of patients has impacted workflow
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A drastic drop in the physician query rate might indicate to the CDI manager that the CDI staff need education on identifying query opportunities. The physician query rate is a metric that measures the percentage of records that have at least one query sent by the CDI staff to clarify or improve the documentation. A high query rate may reflect a high level of documentation quality issues or a high level of CDI staff vigilance and expertise. A low query rate may reflect a low level of documentation quality issues or a low level of CDI staff awareness and competence 2. Therefore, a drastic drop in the query rate could suggest that the CDI staff are missing some query opportunities or are not following the query policies and procedures. The CDI manager should investigate the reasons for the drop and provide education and feedback to the CDI staff on how to identify and address query opportunities effectively and compliantly 3.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: Understanding CDI Metrics - AHIMA 2 3: The Natural History of CDI Programs: A Metric-Based Model 5
NEW QUESTION # 96
Review the following query to determine if it is compliant:
Dr. Jones, this patient had a sodium level of 126 on admission and was started on a 0.9% saline IV. Can you indicate what condition is being treated?
Dehydration
Hyponatremia
Hypernatremia
Chronic kidney disease (indicate stage)
Other (please specify)
- A. No, query is noncompliant as it does not provide the option of "unable to determine".
- B. Yes, query is compliant as it offers the minimum number of multiple-choice answers ..
- C. No, query is noncompliant as one of the multiple-choice options is clinically irrelevant.
- D. Yes, query is compliant as it provides clinical indicators and several options for response.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A query is noncompliant if it includes options that are not supported by the clinical indicators or the patient's condition. In this case, hypernatremia is a condition of high sodium level, not low sodium level, and it is not consistent with the treatment of 0.9% saline IV. Therefore, it is a clinically irrelevant option that may confuse or mislead the provider. A compliant query should only include options that are reasonable and plausible based on the available documentation and evidence. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
AHIMA Practice Brief: Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice3
NEW QUESTION # 97
Based on the flowchart below, at what point might the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) enlist the help of the physician advisor/champion?
- A. D - No retrospective query opportunity identified
- B. C - Retrospective query opportunity identified
- C. E - Physician agrees with query and documents in MR
- D. H - Physician fails to respond tocquery
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 98
A patient presented with shortness of breath, elevated B-type natriuretic peptide, and lower extremity edema to the emergency room. During the hospitalization, a cardiac echocardiogram was performed and revealed an ejection fraction of 55% with diastolic dysfunction. The patient's history includes hypertension (HTN), chronic kidney disease (CKD) (baseline glomerular filtration rate 40) and congestive heart failure (CHF). The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) has queried the physician to further clarify the patient's diagnosis. Which response provides the highest level of specificity?
- A. Acute on chronic diastolic CHF with hypertensive renal disease, CKD 3
- B. Acute CHF with hypertensive renal disease, CKD 3
- C. Acute diastolic CHF with HTN and CKD 3
- D. Acute on chronic systolic CHF with hypertensive renal disease, CKD 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
This response provides the highest level of specificity for the patient's diagnosis because it includes the following elements:
The type of heart failure: diastolic, which means the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling with blood during diastole, resulting in increased filling pressures and pulmonary congestion. Diastolic heart failure is also known as heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), which is defined as an ejection fraction of 50% or higher 2.
The acuity of heart failure: acute on chronic, which means the patient has a history of chronic heart failure that has worsened acutely due to a precipitating factor, such as infection, ischemia, arrhythmia, or medication noncompliance. Acute on chronic heart failure is associated with higher mortality and morbidity than stable chronic heart failure 3.
The associated conditions: hypertensive renal disease and CKD 3, which indicate that the patient has kidney damage and reduced kidney function due to high blood pressure. CKD 3 is the third stage of chronic kidney disease, which is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate of 30 to 59 mL per minute per 1.73 m2 4.
The other responses are less specific because they either omit or misrepresent some of these elements. For example, response B incorrectly states that the patient has systolic heart failure, which is contradicted by the echocardiogram result. Response C does not specify whether the heart failure is chronic or acute on chronic, which has implications for treatment and prognosis. Response D does not specify the type of heart failure, which affects the coding and classification of the condition.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 5 2: Heart Failure With Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF) | American Heart Association 3: Acute-on-Chronic Heart Failure: A High-Risk Phenotype Needing Separate Attention 4: Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) | National Kidney Foundation
NEW QUESTION # 99
A patient presents to the emergency department for evaluation after suffering a head injury during a fall. A traumatic subdural hematoma is found on MRI, and the patient is taken directly to the operating room for evacuation. The neurosurgeon performs a burr hole procedure for evacuation of the subdural hematoma. The clot is removed successfully, and the patient is transferred to recovery in stable condition. Which is the correct current procedural terminology (CPT) code assignment for the procedure performed?
- A. 61105 Twist drill hole subdural/ventricular puncture
- B. 61140 Burr hole(s) or trephine; with biopsy of brain or intracranial lesion
- C. 61108 Twist drill hole(s) for subdural, intracerebral, or ventricular puncture; for evacuation and/or drainage of subdural hematoma
- D. 61154 Burr hole(s) with evacuation and/or drainage of hematoma, extradural or subdural
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the CPT code description, 61154 is the appropriate code for a burr hole procedure for evacuation of a subdural hematoma. A burr hole is a small hole made in the skull with a surgical drill to access the brain or its coverings2. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, which are two of the three layers that cover the brain3. The evacuation of the hematoma involves removing the clot and relieving the pressure on the brain. The other codes are not applicable for this procedure because they describe different methods of access (twist drill hole) or different purposes (biopsy or puncture)4.
References:
CDI Week 2020 Q&A: CDI and key performance indicators1
Mayo Clinic: Burr hole2
MedlinePlus: Subdural hematoma3
CPT Code Book 20234
NEW QUESTION # 100
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager is reviewing physician benchmarks and notices a low-severity level being measured against average length of stay.
What should the CDI manager keep in mind when discussing this observation with physicians?
- A. The indicator is a key factor of measurement for quality reports.
- B. The diagnosis with a higher degree of specificity has a lower severity of illness.
- C. The query rate is too high while the agreement rate is low.
- D. The query response rate directly correlates to quality reports.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, one of the CDI metrics and statistics that CDI managers should track and interpret is the severity level measured against average length of stay (ALOS)1. This indicator reflects the complexity and acuity of the patient population and the quality of care provided by the hospital2. A low-severity level with a high ALOS may indicate under-documentation or under-coding of the patient's condition, which may affect the hospital's reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores3. Therefore, the CDI manager should keep in mind that this indicator is a key factor of measurement for quality reports when discussing this observation with physicians, and educate them on the importance of documenting and coding accurately and completely to reflect the patient's true severity of illness. The other options are not correct because they do not address the issue of severity level measured against ALOS, or they are not relevant to the CDI manager's role or responsibility. References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
Severity of Illness: What Is It? Why Is It Important? | HCPro
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patient treated in the hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?
- A. Adjusted case mix index
- B. Present on admission indicators
- C. Hospital acquired conditions
- D. Program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, the adjusted case mix index (CMI) is a measure that demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patients treated in a hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program1. The adjusted CMI is calculated by multiplying the unadjusted CMI by a factor that accounts for the percentage of Medicare patients in the hospital2. The higher the adjusted CMI, the higher the expected reimbursement per patient, and the more effective the CDI program is assumed to be3. The other options are not correct because they do not measure the severity and complexity of patients or the financial impact of CDI. Hospital acquired conditions (HACs) are conditions that are not present on admission and are considered preventable by CMS, and may result in reduced reimbursement or penalties4. The program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report (PEPPER) is a report that provides hospital-specific data on potential overpayments or underpayments for certain services or diagnoses, and helps identify areas of risk or opportunity for improvement. Present on admission (POA) indicators are codes that indicate whether a condition was present at the time of admission or acquired during the hospital stay, and affect the assignment of DRGs and HACs. References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
What is Case Mix Index? | The Importance of CMI
Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) | CMS
[PEPPER Resources]
[Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines - CMS]
NEW QUESTION # 102
What type of query may NOT be used in circumstances where only clinical indicators of a condition are present, and the condition/diagnosis has not been documented in the health record?
- A. Yes/No
- B. Open-ended
- C. Verbal
- D. Multiple-choice
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A yes/no query may not be used in circumstances where only clinical indicators of a condition are present, and the condition/diagnosis has not been documented in the health record because it may lead to leading or suggesting a diagnosis that is not supported by the provider's documentation. A yes/no query should only be used when there is clear and consistent documentation of a condition/diagnosis in the health record, and the query is seeking confirmation or denial of a specific fact or detail related to that condition/diagnosis. A multiple-choice, open-ended, or verbal query may be more appropriate to allow the provider to choose from a list of possible diagnoses, provide additional information, or explain the clinical reasoning behind the documentation. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
AHIMA Practice Brief: Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice3
NEW QUESTION # 103
......
Get Top-Rated AHIMA CDIP Exam Dumps Now: https://dumpsvce.exam4free.com/CDIP-valid-dumps.html
